A. Older English translations that don't use sources corroborated by The Dead Sea scrolls are not, IMO, "good." B. My contention is not the negative connotation of theif or robber. All translations have a negative word there. C. I very much refuse to use The Talmud in any discussion since it is utterly, Contemptably disgusting and perverted beyond the pale. (Referring to the article you linked using the Talmud as the source of a supposition regarding what was taking place that brought Jesus to action.) D. From the article: Jeremiah 7:6, 9-11 . . . do not oppress the alien, the fatherless or the widow, or shed innocent blood in this place . . . [9] Will you steal, murder, commit adultery, swear falsely, burn incense to Ba’al, and go after other gods that you have not known, [10] and then come and stand before me in this house, which is called by my name, and say, `We are delivered!’ — only to go on doing all these abominations? [11] Has this house, which is called by my name, become a den of robbers in your eyes? Behold, I myself have seen it, says the LORD. Jesus was quoting this passage. Where is the sin of usury mentioned in that passage? Reading the sin of usury into that passage is a modern affliction. Please ask yourself "what is being robbed?" in the context of the original quote. There you will find your answers to the conundrum. Hint: in this case, it isn't about money. So, again: no. Just plainly no. If you want to exercise your imagination, then lets say that the money exchangers were being unlawful, and those selling doves to the poor were exploiting them. What then? Jesus could have chosen a bunch of other quotes to rebuke them as He drove them out. And yet, He didn't. So, again, we must ask ourselves why that is. And the answer (my friends, is blowing in the wind... Sorry... 🤣) revolves around the first part of the above quoted passage. What is being robbed? By whom? I put forward that this is one of the least understood passages in the NT that I've pondered.