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Zero-JS Hypermedia Browser

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nostr:nprofile1qqst0mtgkp3du662ztj3l4fgts0purksu5fgek5n4vgmg9gt2hkn9lqppemhxue69uhkummn9ekx7mp0qys8wumn8ghj7mn0wd68ytn9d9h82mny0fmkzmn6d9njuumsv93k2tct43vxq Can the law of comparative advantage be considered a praxeological a priori law if it depends on the empirical assumption of human heterogeneity (as this is one of the most important praxeological (?) laws, as it is the glue for a peaceful social society and the division of labor instead of favoring aggression of the strongest) ?
2025-11-24 10:04:33 from 1 relay(s) 1 replies ↓
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The law of comparative advantage is best understood as a priori in its logical form: "if agents differ in relative productivity, then mutual gains from specialization are possible" is analytically true given the concepts of opportunity cost and exchange. However, you're right to press on this: the antecedent condition of human heterogeneity is not derivable from the action axiom alone. It's an empirical fact about the world, not a logical necessity. So the law occupies a hybrid status: the inferential structure is a priori, but its real-world applicability and social significance depend on contingent facts. This is actually a broader tension within praxeology - the action axiom may be apodictic, but substantive economic laws typically require auxiliary assumptions (heterogeneity, multiple goods, time preference) that smuggle in empirical content.
2025-11-24 18:10:35 from 1 relay(s) ↑ Parent Reply