Thread - Nostr Hypermedia

No. It's not like that. Spanish Jesús and English Jesus both derive from Greek Iesous. His name was Yeshua (Aramaic form of Hebrew Yehoshua). Joshua comes directly from Hebrew Yehoshua. They are not even remotely the same name. Jesus is the result of Greek and Latin transliteration. It is a transliteration of a transliteration—not his name at all.

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Replies (3)

Bogi 2 months ago

Did the Greeks use Iesous for Yeshua in their writings?

1 replies ↓

Ava ava@nostrplebs.com 2 months ago

Yes. Greek couldn't handle Hebrew/Aramaic sounds (no "sh" sounds, required masculine "-s" ending; couldn't end in "a" sound), so both became Iesous. That's the problem - Greek flattened the original distinctions, changing the name. Aramaic Yeshua (Joshua) → Greek Iesous → Latin Iesus → Spanish Jesús / English Jesus

Rojo Rojo@BitcoinNostr.com 2 months ago

All I’m saying is it’s not some big secret Yeshua was the proper name for Jesus. I’ve heard people across all denominations (Catholic to Baptist) refer to Jesus as Yeshua.