They literally and explicitly incentivize consumption for its own sake. It’s backward.
Consumption isn’t *good for the economy,* it’s the other way around:
A *good economy* has healthy consumption.
That’s the problem, Keynesian economics has reversed causality. It’s not good for the economy that someone uses a house, whether they need it or not. It’s good because if they can afford it, it is an indication that significant value has been added to the economy.
It’s the same difference as saying “college degrees incentivize skilled workers,” and then just issuing college degrees to millions of people because now they’ll all go get skills.
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I think you’re splitting hairs. Consumption is not a fiat phenomenon. Fiat does incentivize greater consumption in the short term.
“They” can also incentivize consumption in a hard money standard. Maybe what you’re getting at is subsidized consumption? I fail to see how someone working for money and then buying a good with that money in order to consume it is not objectively better for the economy.
I don’t see how that example reflects the reality of consumption between free economic actors. Sounds like you’re talking about governments either forcing or printing money so producers make goods and then giving people vouchers so they can consume those goods and calling it growth.
We consume crap products, because consuming them is better than holding the crap money.