I have never once heard anyone say the words 'the Bible is the inspired Word of Jesus' regardless of Jesus being God in the flash. And besides, no version of the statement exists anywhere in the Bible.
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Is that not a distinction without a difference though? If Jesus=god, then word of god=word of Jesus.
My point is, that particular phase is not used commonly. And that any version of it is nowhere in the Bible. So its irrelevant to be honest.